Please solve on same Kind of coordinate plane. Thank you!

Answer:

Im guessing its

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Option B - $20

Total guests = 15

Total Money = $300

Per Guest Cost = 300/15

= $20

Therefore she will spend $20 per guest

Answered by Gauthmath must click thanks and mark brainliest

Answer: 4,000

Step-by-step explanation: To round 4,327 to the nearest thousand, we first find the digit in the rounding place, which in this case is the 4 in the thousands place. Next, we look at the digit to the right of the 4, which is 3.

According to the rules of rounding, since the digit to

the right of the rounding place is less than 5, we round down.

So the 4 in the rounding place stays the same

and all digits to the right of the 4 become 0.

So 4,327 rounded to the nearest thousand is 4,000.

Answer:

y= -x +2

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a negative slope of one because the line is going down and has a ride over run of 1/1. Then the y intercept is +2 because this line intercepts the y axis at positive 2.

hope it helps!

Answer:

y = -x +2

Step-by-step explanation:

just trust me on this

The Pascal triangle terms and binomial are related by the binomial theorem fomrula:

The row of the Pascal triangle is the same as

where n is the same as the row of the Pascal triangle.

For example,

.

is the same as the 2nd row of the Pascal triangle.

.

Also know the leading coefficient and last term degree will be the nth row of the Pascal triangle.

The first term, a will be 1 less than the previous terms and the second term, b will be 1 more than the previous terms. For example, look at

.

Another example is

.

The third row of Pascal Triangle

.

.

Pascal's triangle provides a systematic way to determine the coefficients of binomial expansions, making it a valuable tool in algebra and combinatorics.

Binomial expansions are directly related to Pascal's triangle.

Pascal's triangle is a triangular arrangement of numbers in which each number is the sum of the two numbers directly above it. The first and last numbers in each row of Pascal's triangle are always 1.

The coefficients of the terms in a binomial expansion correspond to the numbers in Pascal's triangle. Each row of Pascal's triangle represents the coefficients of the corresponding power of the binomial.

For example, in the expansion of (a + b)², the coefficients are 1, 2, and 1. These coefficients can be found in the third row of Pascal's triangle: 1, 2, 1. Similarly, in the expansion of (a + b)³, the coefficients are 1, 3, 3, and 1, which can be found in the fourth row of Pascal's triangle: 1, 3, 3, 1.

In summary, Pascal's triangle provides a systematic way to determine the coefficients of binomial expansions, making it a valuable tool in algebra and combinatorics.

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This is a polynomial in [tex]2^x[/tex] that can be factorized:

[tex]2^{2x}-5\cdot2^x+4 = 0[/tex]

[tex]\left(2^x\right)^2-5\cdot2^x+4=0[/tex]

[tex]\left(2^x-4\right)\left(2^x-1\right)=0[/tex]

[tex]2^x-4=0\text{ or }2^x-1=0[/tex]

[tex]2^x=4\text{ or }2^x=1[/tex]

Since 4 = 2² and 1 = 2⁰, you get the two solutions x = 2 and x = 0.

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

200% x 20

200/100 x 20

(200 ÷ 100) x 20

200 x 20 ÷ 100

4,000 ÷ 100 = 40

Answer:

- 2864

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

The number is of 4 digits

All are different

The sum of the 4 digits = 20

Hundred's digit is twice than one's digit

A.T.Q.

Let the unit digit be 4. So, the hundred's digit would be 4 * 2 = 8

Now, we have

_8_4

We know that the sum of four digits is 20. Thus,

_ + 8 + _ + 4 = 20

∵ _ + _ = 20 - 12 = 8

The possible numbers must make a sum of 8. Thus, one possibility can be 2 and 6.

Therefore, the number can be

2864  

( 2 + 8 + 6 + 4 = 20)

Since the two linear relations are parallel to each other, no solution to the system exists. Hence, Samia's conclusion is correct.

A system of equations, involving two linear lines has solutions as follows:

In the question, we are informed that Samia created the given tables for a linear system, and concluded that no solution exists for the system.

We are asked to comment on her conclusion.

To check for her conclusion, we calculate the slopes of both the lines to check whether the relations are parallel or not, as, for parallel relations, the slopes are equal.

Slope can be calculated using the formula, m = (y₂ - y₁)/(x₂ - x₁), when (x₁, y₁), and (x₂, y₂) are the points on the line.

Thus, the slope for:-

Relation 1, is m₁ = (22 - 8)/(4 - (-3)) = 14/7 = 2.

Relation 2, is m₂ = (12 - (-2))/(4 - (-3)) = 14/7 = 2.

Since the slope of the two relations is equal, that is, m₁ = m₂, and they are not coinciding with each other, we can say that the two relations are parallel to each other.

Since the two linear relations are parallel to each other, no solution to the system exists. Hence, Samia's conclusion is correct.

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Answer:

Option A: T(-3, -4)

Step-by-step explanation:

For a general point (x, y), if we apply the transformation:

T(a, b)

at that point, the new point that we will get is:

T(a,b)[ (x, y) ] = (x + a, y + b)

Notice that if w take the difference between the new point (x + a, y + b) and the original point (x, y)

we get:

(x + a, y + b) - (x, y) = (x + a - x, y + b  y) = (a, b)

These are x-value and y-value that describe our transformation T(a, b).

Then if we know that the original point is B (-2, 1)

and the transformed point is B'( -5, -3)

We can just take the difference to get:

(-5, -3) - (-2, 1) = (-5 - (-2), -3 - 1) = (-5 + 2, -4) = (-3, -4)

Then the transformation applied is:

T(-3, -4)

The correct option is A.

Answer:

3 a) solution:-

Discount=Rs 1,200

S .P =RS 4,000

M P=?

we know that,

Discount= M.P - S.P

or, Rs 1,200= M.P - Rs 4,000

or, M.P = RS (4,000-1,200 )

M.P = RS 2,800

In no. 3 all we have to make like this .........

Hope it helps

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2)a) M.P =₹ 5000

S.P = ₹4000

Discount amount = M.P - S.P

                            = 5000 - 4000

                            = ₹1000

Discount percent = [tex]\frac{discount \ amount}{M.P}*100[/tex]

                             [tex]= \frac{1000}{5000}*100\\[/tex]

                             = 20%

3)a) Discount = ₹ 1200

S.P = ₹ 4000

M.P = S.P + discount

      = 4000 + 1200

      =  ₹ 5200

4)a ) Discount rate = 15%

S.P= ₹ 4000

[tex]M.P = \frac{100+Discount rate}{100}*S.P\\\\=\frac{115}{100}*4000[/tex]

= ₹ 4600

Hi there!

[tex]\large\boxed{\frac{1}{5}, \frac{21}{5}}[/tex]

In order to set each equation equal to each other, we must have them both equal the same variable.

Rearrange the top equation to make it equal to y:

x - y = -4

Add 4 to both sides and add y to both sides:

x + 4 = y

Now, we can set both equations equal to each other:

x + 4 = 5(x + 1)² - 3

Begin solving by expanding the square binomial:

x + 4 = 5(x² + 2x + 1) - 3

Simplify:

x + 4 = 5x² + 10x + 5 - 3

x + 4 = 5x² + 10x + 2

Bring all terms to one side:

0 = 5x² + 9x - 2

Factor:

0 = (5x - 1)(x + 2)

Set the other factor equal to 0:

5x - 1 = 0

5x = 1

x = 1/5

Plug in this value of x into an original equation:

1/5 - y = -4

1/5 + 4 = y

1/5 + 20/5 = y

y = 21/5

Answer:

Roots is a fancy word for zero, which is also another fancy word for the x intercept.

You can factor a quad or use the quadratic equation to get zeros.

In this case, its non-factorable. So you gotta use the quadratic.

Using the quadratic equation you get : x = -2 ± √-1 (√5),

which can be rewritten as x = -2 ± i(√5)

Function was : x^2 + 4x + 9

For quad, I identified the following:

A = 1

B = 4

C = 9

I also added a picture of the formula in the attached.

Answer:

∠ JFK = 57°

Step-by-step explanation:

∠ JFK and ∠ GFH are vertically opposite and congruent , then

∠ JFK = ∠ GFH = 57°

5a+2b-3a+4

= (5a-3a)+2b+4

= 2a + 2b + 4

Answered by Gauthmath must click thanks and mark brainliest

Answer:

see image

Step-by-step explanation:

put a point on .5 on the x axis and a point on -3 on the y axis draw a line through them and shade the space under the line

Answer:

202.5

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{L}{45}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{90}{20}[/tex] → [tex]\frac{L}{45}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{9}{2}[/tex]

9 x 45 = 405 → 2L=405

L=[tex]\frac{405}{2}[/tex] → L = 202.5

Answer:

203 ft.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we are given the measurements of two sides, we can use trig to find the angle (or our reference angle, we'll call it x) the sides form.

SOH-CAH-TOA

We'll use cosine since the adjacent and hypotenuse were given for our reference angle.

Cos(x) = (adj/hyp)

Cos(x) = (396/445)

[Cos(x)]cos^-1 = (396/445)(cos^-1)

x ≈ 27.1409 (Nearest ten-thousandth)

And now we find the missing side using our now known angle.

SOH-CAH-TOA

Tan(x) = (opp/adj)

Tan(27.1409) = (opp/396)

0.5126 ≈ (opp/396)

(0.5126)(396) ≈ (opp/396)(396)

Opp = 203

Missing Side = 203 ft

Answer:

√2

Step-by-step explanation:

tan(x) = -1

x = arctan(-1)

x = -π/4

Now since x is between 3π/2 and 2π use use the general form

nπ-π/4

taking n = 2

2×π-π/4

= 7π/4

now tan (7π/4) = -1

so sec (7π/4) = √2

Answered by GAUTHMATH

Answer:

Trigonometry is a branch of mathematics that studies relationships between the sides and angles of triangle

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Total amount in cents (unsimplified): 5N +17(10-N)

Simplified: 170-5N

Step-by-step explanation:

3(t-3)=5(2t-1)

= 3t-9=10t-5

= 3t-10t = -5+9

= -7t = 4

= -t = 4/7

= - 4/7 Answer

hope it helps

Answer:

48 teachers

Step-by-step explanation:

Here's two solutions:

Solution 1: Build an equation.

Let $T$ be the number of teachers. The number of math teachers is $\frac{3}{8}T$, and the number of non-math teachers is $30$. Since each teacher is either a math teacher or not a math teacher, we have

$$\frac{3}{8}T + 30 = T.$$Multiplying each side of this equation by $8$ gives us

$$3T + 240 = 8T.$$Subtracting $3T$ from each side gives us $240 = 5T$, and dividing both sides by $5$ gives us $48=T$. Therefore, there are $48$ teachers at Naran's school.

Solution 2: Think proportionally.

Since three-eighths of the teachers are math teachers, the other five-eighths are not math teachers. So, these $30$ non-math teachers are five-eighths of the total number of teachers. Therefore, $\dfrac{30}{5} = 6$ teachers are one-eighth of the total. So, there are $6\cdot 8 = \boxed{48}$ teachers in all.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

a geometric sequence is where we multiply a factor from element to element.

a1 = $900

a2 = 981 = a1 × f = 900 ×

a3 = 1069.29 = a2 × f = a1 × f × f = s1 × f²

[tex]an = 900 \times {f}^{n - 1} [/tex]

so, now let's try and get f.

remember, 981 = 900 × f

f = 981/900 = 109/100 = 1.09

just to control, we check for s3 :

900 × (1.09)² = 900 × 1.1881 = 1069.29

correct.

so,

a13 = 900 × (1.09)¹² = 2,531.398304

s13 is then the sum of all a1, ..., a13

there is a nice formula for sums of finite sequences

s13 = 900 × (1-f¹³) / (1-f) = 900×(1-(1.09)¹³) / (1-1.09) =

= 900×(1-3.065804612) / (-0.09) =

= 900×(-2.065804612) / (-0.09) = 20,658.04612

.

Answer:

6 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

20 miles jogs at 1 hour, so for 2 miles,

2/20

= 1/10 hours

= 1/10×60

= 6 minutes

Answered by GAUTHMATH

here's the answer to your question

Answer:

66

Step-by-step explanation:

The Empirical Rule states that 68% of data is between 1 standard deviation in a dataset of normal distribution, 95% falls between 2 standard deviations, and 99.7% between 3.

The mean is 450, and one standard deviation is between 450 ± 50 = 400 and 500. Therefore, we can say that 68% of the data falls between 400 and 500 seconds.

The data includes 97 emergencies, so we just need to find 68% of that, which is 0.68*97 = 65.96 (rounding up to 66)

There are 66 emergencies are the response times expected between 400 seconds and 500 seconds.

The process of combining two or more numbers is called the Addition. The 4 main properties of addition are commutative, associative, distributive, and additive identity.

Given that;

mean = 450 sec

standard deviation = 50 sec

Hence, We get;

450-50 =400

450+50=500

Now, In Between 400 sec and 500 sec means one deviation above and one deviation below the mean, and it is 68%.

68% = 0.68

Thus,

0.68 x 97 = 65.96 ≈ 66

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Answer:

24 boys & 20 girls

Step-by-step explanation:

Last year:

Number of boys = x

Total number = 45

Number of girls = 45 - x

An increase of 20% is the same as multiplying by 1.2

A decrease of 10% is the same as multiplying by 0.8

This year:

New number of boys: 1.2x

New number of girls: 0.8(45 - x)

New total number = 45 - 1 = 44

1.2x + 0.8(45 - x) = 44

1.2x + 36 - 0.8x = 44

0.4x + 36 = 44

0.4x = 8

x = 20

Last year there were 20 boys and 25 girls.

This year there are 20 * 1.2 = 24 boys

and 44 - 24 = 20 girls

Answer: 24 boys & 20 girls

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hamamadou