Match the type of evidence for evolution with the correct example
Vestigial structures: 1st box
Homologous structures: Last box
DNA sequence data: 2nd box
Analogous structures: 3rd box
In this scenario you want to test if the evolution of a food preference may reinforce reproductive isolation. You know that you want to measure if golden rain tree bugs and balloon vine bugs prefer fruits from either host plant. Please write a hypothesis based on this.
Answer:
It is given and we know that if balloon vine bugs and golden rain tree bugs prefer fruits from either host plant. Then the change in the food preference leads to reproductive isolation which is sympatric isolation
There is the ongoing rapid evolution of bugs in relation to the seed defense structures of their host. Rapid evolution in bug populations that feed on recently introduced sapinds is grounded with an ancestral pattern of coevolution between the bugs and the defenses of sapinds.
56:25
If blood is in short supply, which blood type would be the most beneficial to have on hand if someone needed a blood transfusion?
O+
O–
AB+
AB–
functions of insulin
Answer:
Insulin helps control blood glucose levels by signaling the liver and muscle and fat cells to take in glucose from the blood. Insulin therefore helps cells to take in glucose to be used for energy. If the body has sufficient energy, insulin signals the liver to take up glucose and store it as glycogen.
Explanation:
Which of the following combinations of phylum and description is correct? (and why?)
a) Nematoda − roundworms, internal skeleton
b) Porifera − gastrovascular cavity, coelom
c) Echinodermata - radial symmetry as a larva, coelom
d) Platyhelminthes − flatworms, gastrovascular cavity, no body cavity
The phylum and description that is correct among the options is Platyhelminthes − flatworms, gastrovascular cavity, no body cavity
Flatworms belongs to the phylum platyhelminthes. They are said to have no true body cavity, but they do have bilateral symmetry. For the lack of a body cavity, it is called acoelomates. They also have an incomplete digestive system. That is, the digestive tract has only one openingsFrom the above we can therefore say that Option d is the correct option that gives the true description of the phylum platyhelminthes
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Which is a compound that allows plants to get nitrogen from the nitrogen cycle?
Answer:
Plants can use ammonia as a nitrogen source. After ammonium fixation, the ammonia and ammonium that is formed will be transferred further, during the nitrification process. Aerobic bacteria use oxygen to convert these compounds.
Which part of plant carries water and minerals from roots to other parts of the plant
Answer: The xylem distributes water and dissolved minerals upward through the plant, from the roots to the leaves. The phloem carries food downward from the leaves to the roots. Xylem cells constitute the major part of a mature woody stem or root.
Which plant activities are directed by hormones? (select all that apply)
a. sunflowers following the sun to face it as it moves across the sky
b. leaves of deciduous trees changing colors in the fall
c. a green tomato turning red
d. a growing vine wrapping around a fence post
Answer:
All of the activities are directed by plant hormone
Answer:
it is all of them
Explanation:
Trust me I got 75% instead of 100 because i didnt chose all of them
What is breathing in science
Answer:
Breathing, the action of moving air or water across the surface of a respiratory structure, such as a gill or lung, to facilitate respiration (the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide with the environment).
Explanation:
Describe the purpose of mitosis.
2. Describe what is happening in each stage and what each stage looks like:
Prophase
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis
Answer:
To acquire growth and to replace worn out and defected cells.
Explanation:
The main purpose of mitosis is to acquire growth and to replace worn out and defected cells.
In prophase, the chromatin condenses which is present in the nucleus of the cell.
Prometaphase is the stage where the nuclear membrane breaks apart into numerous "membrane vesicles".
Metaphase is the phase where all the genetic material is condensing into chromosomes.
Anaphase is the stage in which chromosomes are pulled by the spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.
In Telophase, the cell is nearly dividing, and it starts to re-establish its normal structures as cytokinesis (division of the cell contents) takes place.
Cytokinesis is the process which divides the cytoplasm of a parental cell into two daughter cells.
yinto uxinzelelo lwengqondo?
Answer:
ni se la respuesta estoy respondiendo sólo para ganar puntos
diagram of a tick with labels
Answer:
I posted some pictures, I hope it helps!
Lectins often bind their ligands via multiple weak interactions. bind their ligands with relatively low specificity. prevent viruses from binding to their target cells. are carbohydrates that bind to receptor proteins.
Answer:
The correct answer is - B.often bind their ligands via multiple weak interactions.
Explanation:
Lectins are specific types of proteins that identify and bind to specific carbohydrates present on the cell surfaces. They have an essential role in interactions and communication between various cells for identification and recognition.
Binding sites of lectins on the surface of one cell bind to the Carbohydrates on the surface of another cell. A lectin usually has two or more binding sites for carbohydrate units.
In carbon dioxide (CO2), there are two oxygen atoms for each carbon atom. Each oxygen atom forms a double bond with carbon, so the molecule contains two sets of double bonds.
Two sets of double bonds means that the total number of electrons being shared in the molecule is
two.
four.
six.
eight.
Answer:
the total number of being shared is six
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Describe fluid exchange between capillaries and the interstitial fluid. Be sure to discuss the forces (pressure) that moves the fluid and the direction in which fluid moves. (4 points) In one to three sentences, describe the role of lymphatic system in this fluid exchange. (3 points) g
Answer:
Capillary exchange is the exchange of fluid from the capillaries into the interstitial fluid and vice versa. Diffusion, transcytosis, and bulk flow are three mechanisms that facilitate capillary exchange.
The blood plasma or interstitial fluid exerts a pressure of the fluid on the capillary walls known as Hydrostatic pressure. Osmotic pressure is a pressure exerted by proteins either in the blood plasma or interstitial fluid called oncotic pressure.
Lymphatic capillaries gather lymphatic fluid and regulate the pressure of interstitial fluid due to the forces of hydrostatic or oncotic pressure. An essential role of the lymphatic system is to return the fluid to the blood.
How do bacteria develop resistance to drugs
Answer: Bacteria gain resistance to drugs because of mutations (permanent and random changes to their DNA) which means they have changed DNA coding, giving them the ability to resist the drug fighting them off. As a result, they survive and reproduce. Over time, more and more bacteria are generated as the DNA code for resistance is passed on over generations. This results in bacteria having the ability to resist drugs. This is particularly prevalent with antibiotics.
Bacteria develop drug resistance through genetic mutations, acquisition of resistance genes, production of inactivating enzymes, efflux pumps, and biofilm formation.
Bacteria can develop resistance to drugs through several mechanisms. One common way is through genetic mutations or acquisition of resistance genes. Mutations can occur in the bacterial DNA, leading to changes in the target site of the drug, rendering it ineffective. Resistance genes can be transferred between bacteria through horizontal gene transfer, allowing the recipient bacteria to acquire resistance traits.
Another mechanism is the production of enzymes that can inactivate the drug. Bacteria can produce enzymes, such as beta-lactamases, that break down antibiotics like penicillin, preventing them from functioning properly. Bacteria can develop efflux pumps that actively pump out drugs from their cells, reducing their concentration and effectiveness. This mechanism helps bacteria evade the lethal effects of antibiotics. Biofilm formation provides a protective environment for bacteria, making them less susceptible to drugs and immune system attacks.
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The correct question is:
How do bacteria develop resistance to drugs?
For each of the following structures, first indicate its function in the fetus; then, note its fate (what happens to it or what it is converted to after birth).
a. Umbilical artery
b. Umbilical vein
c. Ductus venosus
d. Ductus arterious
e. Foramen ovale
Answer:
1. Functions:
a. Umbilical artery >> carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
b. Umbilical vein >> transports oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus
c. Ductus venosus >> allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver
d. Ductus arterious >> allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus's non-functioning lungs
e. Foramen ovale >> oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to bypass the pulmonary circulation
2. After the bird:
1. Umbilical artery >> medial umbilical ligament
2. Umbilical vein >> round ligament of the liver
3. Ductus venosus >> ligamentum venosum
4. Ductus arteriosus >> ligamentum arteriosum
5. Foramen ovale >> fossa ovalis
Explanation:
The umbilical artery is a paired artery localized in the abdominal and pelvic regions, which carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical cord. The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated part of the umbilical artery that arises from the internal iliac arteries. In utero, the umbilical arteries carry waste products back to the placenta, whereas the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. The round ligament of the liver (also known as ligamentum teres hepatis) is a remnant of the umbilical vein that exists in the embryonic stage, it connects the left lobe of the liver to the umbilicus. The ductus venosus is a slender shunt that allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver, it connects the intra-hepatic portion of the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The ligamentum venosum is an extrahepatic, slender, and fibrous remnant of the fetal ductus venosus that travels between the left portal vein and the inferior vena cava. The ductus arteriosus is a fetal artery that connects the aorta to the pulmonary artery. The ligamentum arteriosum is a nonfunctional vestige of the ductus arteriosus, it is attached to the superior surface of the pulmonary trunk. The foramen ovale is an oval-shaped, small, opening in the wall (septum) between the two upper chambers of the heart. The fossa ovalis is a vestige stricture of the foramen ovale of the embryonic heart, which forms a depression in the right atrium of the heart.
describe why heart failure is so often referred as "congestive" heart failure ?
Answer:
Heart failure — sometimes known as congestive heart failure — occurs when the heart muscle doesn't pump blood as well as it should. When this happens, blood often backs up and fluid can build up in the lungs, causing shortness of breath.
Explanation:
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Which development would most reflect Karl Marx's belief in the economic
system that he predicted would replace free markets?
A. Governments eliminate all taxes on wealthy corporations.
B. Workers share all the profits generated from a factory.
C. Companies begin to sell their products in overseas markets.
D. Businesses refuse to hire workers who demand high wages.
Answer:
D. Businesses refuse to hire workers who demand high wages
Explanation:
Karl Marx's predicted that if businesses refuse to hire workers with high wages according to their value, this can lead to revolution and can destroy or replace the free markets.
Make a molecule between 11Na and 2He and name it.
Answer:
Na2He
Explanation:
This is the correct answer
Page 12 of 15
8. Which of the following statements about plasma membranes is INCORRECT?
A. They are composed of phospholipids.
B. They have both integral and peripheral proteins.
C. They are relatively rigid structures.
D. They function to separate the extracellular and intracellular environment.
CONT
st?
Answer:
C. They are relatively rigid structures.
Explanation:
The plasma membrane is a semipermeable lipid bilayer mainly composed of amphipathic phospholipids, which acts as a barrier to separate the cytoplasm from the extracellular environment. This barrier is considered a fluid combination of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates. The fluid mosaic model states that the plasma membrane is a mosaic of lipids (especially phospholipids and cholesterol), as well as proteins and carbohydrates (glycolipids and glycoproteins) that are constantly moving. This fluidity alters the rotation and diffusion of proteins and other components within the plasma membrane, thereby affecting their functions. Membrane fluidity has been experimentally demonstrated by a variety of techniques. (e.g., X-ray diffraction, labeling techniques, calorimetry, etc).
what is a benefit of genetic engineering?
Answer:
Some benefits of genetic engineering in agriculture are increased crop yields, reduced costs for food or drug production, reduced need for pesticides, enhanced nutrient composition and food quality, resistance to pests and disease, greater food security, and medical benefits to the world's growing population.
Answer:
all benefits:
More nutritious food. increased crop yieldsreduced costs for food reduced need for pesticidesgreater food securityI hope that this helps :)
what is the full form of NADP ?
Answer:
NaDP- Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
What is the role of pitutary gland in puberity
Answer:
Puberty has begun. The trigger for puberty in both boys and girls is the production of 'gonadotrophin releasing hormone' (GnRH) from a part of the brain called the hypothalamus. This hormone stimulates the pituitary gland to release two hormones, Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
Explanation:
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Answer:
the gland produce hormones that help to regulate growth and body functions.
The photic zone Select one: a. has the most nutrients closer to land. b. is an area with sufficient light for photosynthesis. c. has an abundance of photosynthetic organisms. d. is very shallow. e. All of the answer choices are correct.
the answer for this would be E
The photic zone has the most nutrients closer to land, an area with sufficient light for photosynthesis, has an abundance of photosynthetic organisms, and is very shallow, Thus, the correct option for this question is E, i.e. all of the following.
Where is the photic zone present in the aquatic ecosystem?The photic zone present in the surface layer of the aquatic ecosystem significantly receives sunlight for photosynthesis. It is the topmost layer that receives sunlight. Hence, this zone is also known as the Sunlight zone.
According to the question, due to the sufficient availability of sunlight, this area performs a good rate of photosynthesis and occupies an abundance of photosynthetic organisms. Phytoplanktons are the characteristic members of this region. As this region has sufficient availability of light, the concentration of nutrients is highly rich.
Therefore, according to the photic zone, the correct option for this question is E, i.e. all of the following.
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A sample from a stock of a bacterial colony in liquid media was diluted by a factor of 106, and 2 ml of this dilution was spread on a Petri dish of solidified media. 56 colonies were observed. What was the concentration of bacteria of the initial stock?
Answer:
28 × 10⁶ colonies/ml
Explanation:
Let C be the concentration of bacterial in the initial stock. When it is diluted by a factor of 10⁶, the new concentration is C' = C/10⁶.
When 2 ml of this concentration is spread on a Petri dish of solidified media, 56 colonies were produced. The number of colonies, n after spreading the 2 ml of C' is C' × 2 ml = 2C' = 2C/10⁶.
So, n = 2C/10⁶.
Since the number of colonies after spreading on a Petri dish of solidified media is 56, n = 56 colonies.
So, 2C/10⁶ = 56
Making C subject of the formula, we have
C = 56 × 10⁶/2
C = 28 × 10⁶ colonies/ml
So, the initial concentration of bacteria is 28 × 10⁶ colonies/ml
If a person develops chronic lymphocytic leukemia, what leukocytes may be involved and how mature are they in the bloodstream? Common symptoms of all types of leukemia are caused not only by the poor functioning of leukocytes, but also by the loss of erythrocytes and platelets. These formed elements have a reduction in their number because the tissue that normally produces them is crowded out by the uncontrolled growth of the leukocyte-producing tissue. For each symptom below, state whether leukocytes, erythrocytes, or platelets are involved.
anemia
easy bleeding
repeated infections
enlarged lymph nodes
shortness of breath
excessive bruising
Answer:
The correct answer is -
anemia- erythrocytes
easy bleeding- platelets
Repeated infections - leucocytes
enlarged lymph nodes- leucocytes
shortness of breath- erythrocytes
excessive bruising- Platelets
Explanation:
Cancer of the lymphocytes is chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in the body's immune system.
Platelets are tiny blood cell fragments that help your body form clots to stop bleeding. The platelets then rush to the site of damage and form a plug, or clot, to repair the damage.
Erythrocytes are red blood cells that travel in the blood. They carry oxygen from the lungs to the body and bring carbon dioxide back to the lungs to be expelled.
Leucocytes- White blood cells (also called leukocytes or leucocytes and abbreviated as WBCs) are the cells of the immune system that are involved in protecting the body against both infectious disease and foreign invaders.
1.If you could only eat one meal for the rest of your life, what would it be?
2. How are you finding the topic DNA and cell division
Cells control or regulate the flux through metabolic pathways by means of I. allosteric control of enzymes. II. covalent modification of enzymes. III. genetic control of the concentrations of enzymes. IV. genetic expression of allosteric regulators.
Answer:
I, II, III
Explanation:
Allosteric regulation is a common mechanism of regulation of enzyme activity, which generally involves key enzymes in metabolic pathways. Allosteric modulation occurs when a substance/molecule called 'allosteric regulator' binds to an enzyme at a site other than the enzyme's active site, thereby triggering a conformational change in the enzyme and thus affecting its activity. Moreover, covalent modifications such as phosphorylation, acetylation, methylation, etc, are also involved in the regulation of enzymatic activity in metabolic pathways. For example, phosphorylation is a type of reversible covalent modification of proteins consisting of the addition of phosphate groups at specific amino acid residues (i.e., serine, threonine, and tyrosine) by specific enzymes known as protein kinases. Phosphorylation alters the three-dimensional (3D) structure of proteins, thereby turning the substrate or cellular pathway to active and/or inactive. Finally, both transcriptional and post-transcriptional mechanisms are also able to control the expression of enzymes involved in signaling pathways. Transcriptional mechanisms are capable of limiting the amount of mRNA that is produced from a given gene (in this case, an enzyme encoding gene), whereas post-transcriptional mechanisms such as, for example, RNA interference pathways, control the translation of messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules into proteins.
Issued in 1974, 45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status:
A) The 1974 National Research Act
B) The Nuremberg Code
C) Kefauver-Harris Drug Amendments to the Federal Food, Drug & Cosmetics Act
D) US Public Health Service Policy
Hello!
The answer is D, The U.S Public Health Service Policy. Its main purpose was providing protection for human subjects for research work which was conducted by federal agencies. You can read more about it on HHS.gov, as it is a very interesting regulation.
I hope this helps! :)
Issued in 1974, 45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status US Public Health Service Policy. Option D
What is the regulatory status?The restrictions known as the Common Rule for the protection of human subjects in research done by or supported by federal agencies are outlined in Title 45 of the Code of Federal restrictions, Part 46. These laws define moral principles and requirements for the protection of research subjects who are being used as human subjects.
The US Public Health Service (PHS) published the policy that would eventually become 45 CFR 46 in 1974. This policy established standards for the examination and approval of research involving human subjects as well as the legal foundation for the protection of those individuals. Informed consent, weighing risks and benefits, and the creation of Institutional Review Boards (IRBs) to regulate research techniques were all adopted.
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