A 20 N south magnetic force pushes a charged particle traveling with a velocity of 4 m/s west through a 5 T magnetic field pointing downwards . What is the charge of the particle ?

Answer:

i think bro is becuse they want to get money also paying to this app  if i put paying right im latin but that is my opinion and also becuse they want we learn somethings

Explanation:

Answer:

The right answer is "0.273 m".

Explanation:

Given:

Power (P),

[tex]\frac{1}{f} = 2D[/tex]

Near point,

u = 0.6 m

As we know,

⇒ [tex]\frac{1}{v} -\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{f} = 2[/tex]

By substituting the values, we get

⇒ [tex]\frac{1}{v} -\frac{1}{0.6} =2[/tex]

            [tex]\frac{1}{v}=2+\frac{1}{0.6}[/tex]

            [tex]\frac{1}{v} =\frac{1.2+1}{0.6}[/tex]

            [tex]\frac{1}{v}=\frac{2.2}{0.6}[/tex]    

By applying cross-multiplication, we get

          [tex]0.6=2.2 \ v[/tex]

            [tex]v = \frac{0.6}{2.2}[/tex]

      [tex]S_{near} = 0.273 \ m[/tex]

The masses of the gliders provided in the question differ from the masses mentioned in the "Required" section. I'll use the first masses throughout.

Momentum is conserved, so the total momentum of the system is the same before and after the collision:

m₁ v₁ + m₂ v₂ = m₁ v₁' + m₂ v₂'

==>

(0.160 kg) (0.710 m/s) + (0.296 kg) (-2.23 m/s) = (0.160 kg) v₁' + (0.296 kg) v₂'

==>

-0.546 kg•m/s ≈ (0.160 kg) v₁' + (0.296 kg) v₂'

where v₁' and v₂' are the gliders' respective final velocities. Notice that we take rightward to be positive and leftward to be negative.

Kinetic energy is also conserved, so that

1/2 m₁ v₁² + 1/2 m₂ v₂² = 1/2 m₁ (v₁' )² + 1/2 m₂ (v₂' )²

or

m₁ v₁² + m₂ v₂² = m₁ (v₁' )² + m₂ (v₂' )²

==>

(0.160 kg) (0.710 m/s)² + (0.296 kg) (-2.23 m/s)² = (0.160 kg) (v₁' )² + (0.296 kg) (v₂' )²

==>

1.55 kg•m²/s² ≈ (0.160 kg) (v₁' )² + (0.296 kg) (v₂' )²

Solve for v₁' and v₂'. Using a calculator, you would find two solutions, one of which we throw out because it corresponds exactly to the initial velocities. The desired solution is

v₁' ≈ -3.11 m/s

v₂' ≈ -0.167 m/s

and take the absolute values to get the magnitudes.

If you want to instead use the masses from the "Required" section, you would end up with

v₁' ≈ -3.18 m/s

v₂' ≈ -0.236 m/s

Answer:

B. A car sits at rest at a stop sign.

(B)

Explanation:

The speed of the ejected electrons depends on the frequency of the incident radiation. The closer the energy of the incident photons to the work function of the metal, the slower is the speed of the ejected electrons. Intensity of the incident radiation has no effect on the speed of the ejected electrons, only its frequency.

Light falling on a metal surface causes electrons to be emitted from the metal by the photoelectric effect. As we decrease the frequency of this light, but do not vary anything else B: the maximum speed of the emitted electrons decreases.

Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which electrically charged particles are released from or within a material when it absorbs electromagnetic radiation. The effect is often defined as the ejection of electrons from a metal plate when light falls on it.

According to Photoelectric effect the kinetic energy of the photo electrons emitted depend on the frequency of incident light , the more is the frequency the more is the kinetic energy of emitted electron and hence high will be the velocity of the emitted electrons and vise versa

since , in question the frequency has been decreased hence , the kinetic energy must be decreased therefore velocity will also get decreased

hence , correct option will be B: the maximum speed of the emitted electrons decreases.

learn more about Photoelectric effect

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Answer:

[tex]\theta=30 \textdegree[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Current [tex]I=2.0A[/tex]

Length [tex]L=0.60m[/tex]

Magnetic field [tex]B=0.30T[/tex]

Force [tex]F=0.18N[/tex]

Generally the equation for Force is mathematically given by

[tex]F = BIL sin\theta[/tex]

[tex]sin\theta=\frac{F}{BIL}[/tex]

[tex]\theta=sin^{-1}\frac{0.18}{0.3*2*0.6}[/tex]

[tex]\theta=30 \textdegree[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]E_0=0.173N/C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Power [tex]P=50kw=>50*10^3w[/tex]

Distance [tex]d=10km=10000m[/tex]

Generally the equation for Intensity is mathematically given by

[tex]I=\frac{P}{4\pi d^2} w/m^2[/tex]

[tex]I=\frac{50*10^3}{4 \pi 10000^2} w/m^2[/tex]

[tex]I=3.98*10^{-5}w/m^2[/tex]

Generally Intensity is also

[tex]I=\frac{1}{2}cE_0^2e[/tex]

Where

[tex]e=8.854*10^{-12}Nm^2/c^2[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]E_0=\sqrt{\frac{2I}{c *e}}[/tex]

[tex]E_0=\sqrt{\frac{2*3.98*10^{-5}}{3*10^8 *8.854*10^{-12}}}[/tex]

[tex]E_0=0.173N/C[/tex]

La energía que almacena el resorte cuando se comprime y estira 12 cm es 9,4 J.  

La energía potencial elástica del resorte se puede calcular con la siguiente ecuación:

[tex] E_{p} = \frac{1}{2}kx^{2} [/tex]

En donde:

k: es la constante del resorte = 1300 N/m

x: es la distancia de compresión o de elongación = 12 cm = 0,12 m

Dado que la energía es proporcional al cuadrado de la distancia recorrida por el resorte (x), la energía almacenada por el resorte durante la compresión será la misma que la energía almacenada por la elongación.

Por lo tanto, la energía almacenada es:

[tex]E_{p} = \frac{1}{2}kx^{2} = \frac{1}{2}1300 N/m*(0,12 m)^{2} = 9,4 J[/tex]                                                            

Entonces, la energía del resorte cuando se comprime y cuando se estira es la misma, a saber 9,4 J.                

Para saber más sobre energía potencial visita este link: https://brainly.com/question/156316?referrer=searchResults

Espero que te sea de utilidad!

Answer:

Al comprimirse o estirarse 12 centímetros desde su posición sin deformar, el resorte almacena 9,360 joules.

Explanation:

La Energía Potencial Elástica almacenada por el resorte ([tex]U_{e}[/tex]), en joules, se calcula a partir de la Ley de Hooke, la definición de Trabajo y el Teorema del Trabajo y la Energía, cuya expresión se presenta abajo:

[tex]U_{e} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot k\cdot (x_{f}^{2}-x_{o}^{2})[/tex] (1)

Donde:

[tex]k[/tex] - Constante elástica del resorte, en newtons por metro.

[tex]x_{o}[/tex] - Posición inicial del resorte, en metros.

[tex]x_{f}[/tex] - Posición final del resorte, en metros.

Nótese que el resorte sin deformar tiene una posición de cero, la tensión tiene un valor positivo y la compresión, negativo.

Asumiendo que en ambos casos el resorte se encuentra inicialmente sin deformar, se reduce (1) a una forma de función par, es decir, una función que cumple con la propiedad de que [tex]f(x) = f(-x)[/tex], se encuentra que al comprimirse o estirarse en la misma medida almacena la misma cantidad de energía.

La cantidad de energía a almacenar es:

[tex]U_{e} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \left(1300\,\frac{N}{m} \right)\cdot (0,12\,m)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]U_{e} = 9,360\,J[/tex]

Al comprimirse o estirarse 12 centímetros desde su posición sin deformar, el resorte almacena 9,360 joules.

Answer:

The mass of the second block=0.457 kg

Explanation:

We are given that

m1=1.5 kg

v1=1.3m/s

v2=4.3 m/s

V=2.0 m/s

We have to find the mass of the second block.

[tex]m_1v_1+m_2v_2=(m_1+m_2)V[/tex]

Let m2=m

Substitute the values

[tex]1.5(1.3)+m(4.3)=(1.5+m)(2)[/tex]

[tex]1.95+4.3m=3+2m[/tex]

[tex]4.3m-2m=3-1.95[/tex]

[tex]2.3m=1.05[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{1.05}{2.3}[/tex]

[tex]m=0.457 kg[/tex]

Hence,  the mass of the second block=0.457 kg

Answer:

d

Explanation:

i think it is rotational inertia

because analogue of mass in rotational motion is moment of inertia. It plays the same role as mass plays in transnational motion.  

hope it's right & helps !!!!!!!!!

Answer:

c) 2Q

Explanation:

From the given information:

The pressure inside a pipe can be expressed by using the formula:

[tex]\Delta P = \dfrac{128 \mu L Q}{\pi D^4}[/tex]

Since the diameter in both pipes is the same, we can say:

[tex]D = D_A = D_B[/tex]

where;

length of the first pipe A [tex]L_A = L[/tex] and the length of the second pipe B [tex]L_B = 2L[/tex]

Since the difference in pressure is equivalent in both pipes:

Then:

[tex]\dfrac{128 \mu L_1Q_1}{\pi D_1^4} = \dfrac{128 \mu L_2Q_2}{\pi D_2^4}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{ L_1Q_1}{D_1^4} = \dfrac{ L_2Q_2}{D_2^4}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{ LQ_1}{D^4} = \dfrac{ 2LQ}{D^4}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{Q_1 = 2Q}[/tex]

The flow rate in pipe B is 2Q of the flow rate of the pipe A

The flow rate is defined as the flow of the fluid across the cross section in per unit time.

From the given information:

The pressure inside a pipe can be expressed by using the formula:

[tex]\Delta p=\dfrac{128\mu LQ}{\pi D^4}[/tex]

Since the diameter in both pipes is the same, we can say:

[tex]D=D_A=D_B[/tex]

where;

length of the first pipe A  [tex]L_A=L[/tex] and the length of the second pipe B  

[tex]L_B=2L[/tex]

Since the difference in pressure is equivalent in both pipes:

Then:

[tex]\dfrac{128\mu L_1Q_1}{\pi D_1^4}=\dfrac{128\mu L_2Q_2}{\pi D_2^4}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{L_1Q_1}{D_1^4}=\dfrac{L_2Q_2}{D_2^4}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{LQ_1}{D_1^4}=\dfrac{2LQ}{D_2^4}[/tex]

[tex]Q_1=2Q[/tex]

Hence the flow rate in pipe B is 2Q of the flow rate of the pipe A

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Answer:

It's electricity produced from hydropower. It's also a form of energy that controls the power of water motion.

Explanation:

One pro about hydroelectric power is that it's renewable energy. But one con about hydroelectric power is that it can impact the environment in a negative way.

Answer:

the charge of the particle is 2.47 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the particle, m = 6.64 x 10⁻²⁷ kg

velocity of the particle, v = 8.7 x 10⁵ m/s

strength of the magnetic field, B = 1.3 T

radius of the circle, r = 18 mm = 1.8 x 10⁻³ m

The magnetic force experienced by the charge is calculated as;

F = ma = qvB

where;

q is the charge of the particle

a is the acceleration of the charge in the circular path

[tex]a = \frac{v^2}{r} \\\\ma = qvB\\\\q = \frac{ma}{vB} \\\\q = \frac{mv^2}{rvB} = \frac{mv}{rB} \\\\q = \frac{(6.64\times 10^{-27} ) \times (8.7\times 10^5)}{(1.8\times 10^{-2}) \times (1.3)} \\\\q = 2.47 \ \times 10^{-19} \ C[/tex]

Therefore, the charge of the particle is 2.47 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

Answer:

The answer is "Option b, c, and a".

Explanation:

Here that the earth pulls on the phone, as it will accelerate towards Earth when we drop it.

We now understand the effects of gravity:

[tex]F \propto M\\\\F\propto \frac{1}{r^2}\\\\or\\\\F \propto \frac{M}{r^2}\\\\Sun (\frac{M}{r^2}) = \frac{10^{28}}{(10^9)^2} = 10^{10}[/tex]

The force of the sun is, therefore, [tex]10^{10}[/tex] times greater and the proper sequence, therefore, option steps are:

b. Pull-on phone from earth

c. Pull-on phone from sun

a. Pull phone from you

Answer:

Explanation:

Newton's Second Law is pretty much the standard for all motion that involves a force. It applies to gravitational force and torque and friction and weight on an elevator. The main formula for force is

F = ma. We have to adjust that to take into account that when the elevator is moving up, that "surge" of acceleration weighs down a bit on the scale, causing it to read higher than the actual weight until the acceleration evens out and there is no acceleration at all (no acceleration simply means that the velocity is constant; acceleration by definition is a change in velocity, and if there is no change in velocity, there is 0 acceleration). The force equation then becomes

[tex]F_n-w=ma[/tex]  where [tex]F_n[/tex] is normal force. This is what the scale will read, which is what we are looking for in this problem (our unknown). Since we are looking for [tex]F_n[/tex], that is what we will solve this literal equation for:

[tex]F_n=ma+w[/tex] .  m is the mass of the boy, a is the acceleration of the elevator (which is going up so we will call that acceleration positive), and w is weight. We have everything but the unknown and the weight of the boy. We find the weight:

w = mg so

w = 28(9.8) and

w = 274.4 N BUT rounding to the correct number of significance we have that the weight is actually

w = 270 N.

Filling in the elevator equation:

[tex]F_n=28(.50)+270[/tex] and according to the rules of significant digits, we have to multiply the 28(.50) {notice that I did add a 0 there for greater significance; if not that added 0 we are only looking at 1 significant digit which is pretty much useless}, round that to 2 sig fig's, and then add to 170:

[tex]F_n=14+270[/tex] and adding, by the rules, requires that we round to the tens place to get, finally:

[tex]F_n=280N[/tex]  So you see that the surge in acceleration did in fact add a tiny bit to the weight read by the scale; conversely, if he were to have moved down at that same rate, the scale would have read a bit less than his actual weight). Isn't physics like the coolest thing ever!?

Answer:

The elastic energy is 245 J.

Explanation:

Length, L = 5 m

Diameter, D = 10^-3 m

Stretch, l = 3 x 10^-4 m

Load, F = 10 x 9.8 = 98 N

Let the elastic energy is U.

[tex]U = \frac{1}{2}\times stress\times strain\times volume\\\\U = 0.5\times \frac{Force}{area}\times \frac{l}{L}\times Area\times L\\\\U = 0.5 \times F\times l\\\\U = 0.5\times 98\times 5\\\\U = 245 J[/tex]

Answer:

If a neutral atom gains electrons, then it will become negatively charged. If a neutral atom loses electrons, then it become positively charged.

Assuming ideal conditions, Boyle's law says that

P₁ V₁ = P₂ V₂

where P₁ and V₁ are the initial pressure and temperature, respectively, and P₂ and V₂ are the final pressure and temperature.

So you have

(455 mm Hg) (56.5 m³) = (632 mm Hg) V₂

==>   V₂ = (455 mm Hg) (56.5 m³) / (632 mm Hg) ≈ 40.7 m³

Answer

Delta Q = change in thermal energy = c M * change in temperature

change in temperature = Q / (c * M)

change in temperature = -12 J  / (390 J / Kg*deg * .012 kg

change in temp = -12 / (390 * .012) =  - 2.56 deg C

Answer:

[tex]v=(6ti+6k)\ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

The position of a particle is given by :

[tex]r(t) = (3.0 t^2 i + 5.0j+ 6.0 tk) m[/tex]

Let us assume we need to find its velocity.

We know that,

[tex]v=\dfrac{dr}{dt}\\\\=\dfrac{d}{dt}(3.0 t^2 i + 5.0j+ 6.0 tk) \\\\=(6ti+6k)\ m/s[/tex]

So, the velocity of the particle is [tex](6ti+6k)\ m/s[/tex].

Explanation:

mass=kilogram,temperature=Klevin,power=watt,density=kilogram per cubic metre

Explanation:

the unit of mass is kg , temperature is kelvin ,power is watt and density is kilogram per cubic meter.

Answer:

Following are the response to the given question:

Explanation:

It's being used to measure the amount of light absorbed after traveling through a test tube (the amount of solar radiation received). For several quantitative estimations, this technique is widely employed. Spectrometer and Spectrometer were two devices that are used together to light intensity and light intensity.

It creates and diffuses phosphorescent light into the selected frequency, while the Spectrometer measures the strength of attenuation by the sample solution.

Diffraction beams or prisms are being used to convert polychromatic illumination into monochrome light.

Afterward, the sunlight has a certain hue. Once it reaches the specimen cuvette, it begins absorption. It falls on a sensor that transforms its intensity into such an electronic current.

Here are some ways to fill in such gaps:

In order to reach the specimen cuvette, the light from the light source must be routed via an aperture in order to be isolated by either a diffraction pattern. Light travels to the detector, which detects its intensity.

Answer:

Both will have the same momentum.

P = M v     momentum

v = a t   for uniform acceleration

P = M a t

But a = F / M

P = M (F / M) t = F t    so both have the same momentum

Answer:

v = 3.12 m/s

Explanation:

First, we will find the length of the string by using the formula of the time period:

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\\\\l = \frac{T^2g}{4\pi^2}\\\\[/tex]

where,

l = length of string = ?

T = time period = 2 s

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

Therefore,

[tex]l = \frac{(2\ s)^2(9.81\ m/s^2)}{4\pi^2}\\\\l = 0.99\ m[/tex]

Now, we will find tension in the string in the vertical position through the weight of the ball:

T = W = mg = (3 kg)(9.81 m/s²)

T = 29.43 N

Now, the speed of the transverse wave is given as follows:

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{Tl}{m}}\\\\v=\sqrt{\frac{(29.43\ N)(0.99\ m)}{3\ kg}}\\\\[/tex]

v = 3.12 m/s

Answer:

39200 joules

the potential energy will be zero

Explanation:

we know that potential energy is found by multiplying mass, acceleration due to gravity and height from the Earth's surface

so it will be

potential energy= mgh

80x9.8x15

= 39200 joules

the potential energy of the mental ball will be zero when kept on the Earth's surface because the height from the Earth's surface will be zero and zero multiplied to any number is zero only

I have a doubt with the second one, this is what I think it is. Consult your teacher if you think my answer for the second one is wrong

Answer:

392000 joules

Explanation:

hope it helpsss

Answer:

A. Equals to that of the smaller sphere

B. 3 times less than that of the smaller sphere

Explanation:

(a) Equals to that of the smaller sphere

The potential of an isolated metal sphere, with charge Q and radius R, is kQ=R, so a sphere with charge 3Q and radius 3R has the same potential

b) 3 times less than that of the smaller sphere

However, the electric field at the surface of the smaller sphere is ?=? 0 = kQ=R2 , so tripling Q and R reduces the surface field by a factor of 1/3

Answer:

  E = 1.25 MV / m

Explanation:

For this exercise let's use Newton's second law

          F = m a

where the force is electric

          F = q E

we substitute

          q E = m a

          E = m a / q

indicate there are 500,000 excess electrons

          q = 500000 e

          q = 500000 1.6 10⁻¹⁹

          q = 8 10⁻¹⁴ C

the mass is m = 10⁻¹¹ kg and the acceleration a = 10⁴ m / s²

let's calculate

          E = 10⁻¹¹ 10⁴ / 8 10⁻¹⁴

          E = 0.125 10⁷ V / m = 1.25 10⁶ V / m

          E = 1.25 MV / m

Answer:

[tex]d=1.29*10^{-6}m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Distance of wall from CD [tex]D=1.4[/tex]

Second bright fringe [tex]y_2= 0.803 m[/tex]

Let

Strontium vapor laser has a wavelength \lambda= 431 nm=>431 *10^{-9}m

Generally the equation for Interference is mathematically given by

[tex]y=frac{n*\lambda*D}{d}[/tex]

Where

[tex]d=\frac{n*\lambda*D}{y}[/tex]

[tex]d=\frac{2*431 *10^{-9}m*1.4}{0.803}[/tex]

[tex]d=1.29*10^{-6}m[/tex]

Answer:

About 37.70 radians.

Explanation:

1 revolution = 2[tex]\pi[/tex] radians

∴ 6 revolutions = (6)(2[tex]\pi[/tex] radians)

6 revolutions = 37.6991 or ≈ 37.70 radians

Answer:

35.047 m

Explanation:

The time it takes the lead ball to reach the surface of the water is

s = ut+gt²/2............. Equation 1

Where t = time it takes the lead ball to reach the surface of water, u = initial velocity of the lead ball, g = acceleration due to gravity, s = heigth.

From the question,

Given: s = 5.20 m, u = 0 m/s (dropped from a height)

Constant: g = 9.8 m/s²

5.2 = 0+9.8t²/2

t² = (5.2×2)/9.8

t² = 10.4/9.8

t² = 1.06

t = √(1.06)

t = 1.03 s

Hence, time taken for the lead ball to reach the bottom of the lake is

t' = 4.5-1.03

t' = 3.47 seconds

v² = u²+2gs............... Equation 2

Where v = final velocity of the lead ball

Substitute into equation 2

v² = 0+2(9.8)(5.2)

v² = 101.92

v = √(101.92)

v = 10.1 m/s

Therefore, depth of the lake is

D = vt'

D = 10.1(3.47)

D = 35.047 m